Kerala PSC Pharmacist Gr II Mock 012

Q1.Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for using a desiccant in the packaging of effervescent tablets?

A. A. To prevent microbial contamination B. B. To absorb moisture and maintain dryness C. C. To enhance the dissolution rate of the tablet D. D. To provide a protective barrier against light

Q2.In the preparation of a sterile ophthalmic solution, which of the following is MOST critical to ensure patient safety?

A. A. Using a preservative with a broad spectrum of activity B. B. Ensuring the pH of the solution is 7.4 C. C. Sterilizing the solution by autoclaving after filtration D. D. Filtering the solution through a 0.22-micron membrane filter

Q3.Which dosage form is MOST suitable for a drug that undergoes extensive first-pass metabolism and requires rapid systemic absorption?

A. A. Oral tablets B. B. Transdermal patches C. C. Sublingual tablets D. D. Controlled-release capsules

Q4.What is the MAIN purpose of enteric coating on a tablet?

A. A. To protect the drug from moisture degradation B. B. To ensure the drug is released in the stomach C. C. To prevent the drug from irritating the gastric mucosa D. D. To delay the release of the drug until it reaches the intestine

Q5.Which of the following packaging materials is BEST suited for a light-sensitive injectable drug?

A. A. Clear glass vial B. B. Amber glass vial C. C. Plastic vial with a foil seal D. D. Polypropylene syringe

Q6.A patient reports irritation after using a topical ointment. Which stability issue is MOST likely responsible for this reaction?

A. A. Oxidation of the drug B. B. Hydrolysis of the base C. C. Phase separation in the ointment D. D. Microbial contamination

Q7.Which of the following is a PRIMARY advantage of using a lyophilized powder for injection over a ready-to-use solution?

A. A. Longer shelf life due to reduced moisture content B. B. Faster reconstitution time C. C. Lower cost of production D. D. Enhanced patient compliance

Q8.In the preparation of a suspension, which excipient is MOST critical to prevent sedimentation?

A. A. Preservative B. B. Flocculating agent C. C. Sweetening agent D. D. Coloring agent

Q9.Which of the following is MOST likely to cause a decrease in the stability of a liquid dosage form?

A. A. Storage at 2-8°C B. B. Exposure to UV light C. C. Use of amber-colored containers D. D. Addition of antioxidants

Q10.A pharmacist notices that a batch of coated tablets has a rough surface and poor gloss. Which of the following is the MOST probable cause?

A. A. Inadequate drying time during coating B. B. Excessive use of plasticizer C. C. Improper mixing of the coating solution D. D. Use of a substandard core tablet

Q11.Which of the following functional groups is primarily responsible for the anti-inflammatory activity of aspirin?

A. A. Carboxylic acid (-COOH) B. B. Ester (-COOR) C. C. Aromatic benzene ring D. D. Acetyl group (-OCOCH3)

Q12.Which inorganic compound is commonly used as an antacid and is also a constituent of toothpaste due to its mild abrasive and fluoride-releasing properties?

A. A. Calcium carbonate (CaCO3) B. B. Magnesium hydroxide (Mg(OH)2) C. C. Sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO3) D. D. Sodium fluoride (NaF)

Q13.The biochemical pathway involving the conversion of glucose to pyruvate is known as:

A. A. Glycogenesis B. B. Glycolysis C. C. Gluconeogenesis D. D. Glycogenolysis

Q14.Which of the following drugs is a prodrug that requires activation by hepatic enzymes to exert its anticoagulant effect?

A. A. Heparin B. B. Warfarin C. C. Clopidogrel D. D. Rivaroxaban

Q15.The presence of a phenolic hydroxyl group in a drug molecule typically enhances its:

A. A. Acidic character and solubility in water B. B. Lipophilicity and membrane permeability C. C. Antioxidant activity and radical scavenging D. D. Basic character and renal clearance

Q16.Which of the following is a key difference between DNA and RNA nucleotides?

A. A. DNA contains uracil, while RNA contains thymine B. B. DNA contains deoxyribose sugar, while RNA contains ribose sugar C. C. DNA is single-stranded, while RNA is double-stranded D. D. DNA has a phosphate backbone, while RNA does not

Q17.The drug 'Metformin' primarily works by:

A. A. Inhibiting alpha-glucosidase in the gut B. B. Stimulating insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells C. C. Reducing hepatic glucose output and improving insulin sensitivity D. D. Blocking sodium-glucose transport protein 2 (SGLT2)

Q18.Which inorganic salt is commonly used as a radiopaque contrast agent in medical imaging due to its high atomic number?

A. A. Barium sulfate (BaSO4) B. B. Sodium chloride (NaCl) C. C. Potassium iodide (KI) D. D. Calcium gluconate (C12H22CaO14)

Q19.The biochemical process where fatty acids are broken down into acetyl-CoA units is called:

A. A. Glycolysis B. B. Beta-oxidation C. C. Ketogenesis D. D. Lipogenesis

Q20.Which of the following drugs is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) used in the treatment of depression?

A. A. Fluoxetine B. B. Amitriptyline C. C. Alprazolam D. D. Haloperidol

Q21.Which of the following adverse drug reactions (ADRs) is most commonly associated with the use of statins like atorvastatin?

A. A. Hepatotoxicity B. B. Nephrotoxicity C. C. Ototoxicity D. D. Pulmonary fibrosis

Q22.A patient on warfarin therapy develops bleeding gums. Which drug interaction is most likely responsible if the patient recently started taking a new medication?

A. A. Rifampicin B. B. Aspirin C. C. Metformin D. D. Paracetamol

Q23.Which of the following drugs is classified as a proton pump inhibitor (PPI)?

A. A. Ranitidine B. B. Omeprazole C. C. Metoclopramide D. D. Domperidone

Q24.A patient with hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to occur as an ADR?

A. A. Hyperkalemia B. B. Hypercalcemia C. C. Hypokalemia D. D. Hyponatremia

Q25.Which of the following antibiotics is most likely to cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity?

A. A. Penicillin B. B. Gentamicin C. C. Ciprofloxacin D. D. Doxycycline

Q26.A patient on digoxin therapy develops nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely contributing to these symptoms?

A. A. Hyperkalemia B. B. Hypokalemia C. C. Hypercalcemia D. D. Hyponatremia

Q27.Which of the following drugs is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)?

A. A. Amitriptyline B. B. Fluoxetine C. C. Diazepam D. D. Haloperidol

Q28.A patient on lithium therapy presents with tremors, confusion, and ataxia. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

A. A. Hypernatremia B. B. Hyponatremia C. C. Hyperkalemia D. D. Hypokalemia

Q29.Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause a disulfiram-like reaction when consumed with alcohol?

A. A. Metronidazole B. B. Amoxicillin C. C. Paracetamol D. D. Ibuprofen

Q30.A patient on ACE inhibitors develops a persistent dry cough. Which of the following drugs is most likely responsible?

A. A. Lisinopril B. B. Losartan C. C. Amlodipine D. D. Hydrochlorothiazide

Q31.Which of the following crude drugs is primarily used as a cardiotonic and contains cardiac glycosides?

A. A. Aloe vera B. B. Digitalis purpurea C. C. Rauwolfia serpentina D. D. Cassia angustifolia

Q32.The drug 'Quinine' is derived from which crude drug source?

A. A. Opium poppy B. B. Cinchona bark C. C. Belladonna leaves D. D. Ipecac root

Q33.Which glycoside is responsible for the purgative action of senna (Cassia angustifolia)?

A. A. Digoxin B. B. Sennoside C. C. Atropine D. D. Morphine

Q34.The crude drug 'Guggul' is primarily used in Ayurveda for its effects on:

A. A. Blood pressure regulation B. B. Lipid metabolism and anti-inflammatory action C. C. Pain relief D. D. Antibiotic therapy

Q35.Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of alkaloids?

A. A. They are nitrogen-containing compounds B. B. They are generally bitter in taste C. C. They are soluble in water and insoluble in organic solvents D. D. They often have pharmacological activity

Q36.The crude drug 'Ashwagandha' (Withania somnifera) is primarily used for its:

A. A. Antipyretic and analgesic properties B. B. Adaptogenic and anti-stress effects C. C. Antihypertensive and diuretic effects D. D. Antitussive and expectorant effects

Q37.Which glycoside is present in the crude drug 'Bitter almond' (Prunus amygdalus)?

A. A. Amygdalin B. B. Sennoside C. C. Digoxin D. D. Atropine

Q38.The drug 'Atropine' is derived from which crude drug source?

A. A. Opium poppy B. B. Belladonna leaves C. C. Cinchona bark D. D. Ipecac root

Q39.Which of the following crude drugs is used as an expectorant due to its saponin content?

A. A. Ginger B. B. Licorice (Glycyrrhiza glabra) C. C. Vasaka (Adhatoda vasica) D. D. Turmeric

Q40.The crude drug 'Neem' (Azadirachta indica) is primarily known for its:

A. A. Antimalarial properties B. B. Antimicrobial and anti-inflammatory effects C. C. Cardiac stimulant action D. D. Sedative and hypnotic effects

Q41.Which of the following is the PRIORITY step in establishing a unit dose drug distribution system in a hospital pharmacy?

A. A. Training nursing staff on medication storage protocols B. B. Implementing barcoded medication administration (BCMA) technology C. C. Conducting an inventory of all controlled substances in the facility D. D. Standardizing drug formulary and restricting non-formulary medications

Q42.In a hospital IPD pharmacy setting, which method is MOST effective for ensuring accurate medication reconciliation upon patient admission?

A. A. Verifying the patient's self-reported medication history B. B. Comparing the patient's prescription list with the medication chart from the previous hospital visit C. C. Using an electronic health record (EHR) system to auto-populate current medications D. D. Relying on the caregiver's verbal confirmation of the patient's home medications

Q43.Which sterile compounding technique is used to prepare small-volume parenteral (SVP) admixtures containing high-risk medications like chemotherapy drugs?

A. A. Horizontal laminar airflow workbench (LAFW) B. B. Class II biological safety cabinet (BSC) C. C. Vertical laminar airflow workbench (LAFW) D. D. Compounding aseptic containment isolator (CACI)

Q44.A patient in the IPD receives a prescription for 500 mg of an antibiotic to be administered every 8 hours. The available vial contains 1 g of the drug in powder form, and the diluent provided is 10 mL of sterile water. What volume of the reconstituted solution should be administered per dose?

A. A. 2.5 mL B. B. 5 mL C. C. 7.5 mL D. D. 10 mL

Q45.Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of a satellite pharmacy located near surgical wards in a tertiary care hospital?

A. A. To store and dispense controlled substances for the entire hospital B. B. To provide immediate access to emergency drugs and critical medications C. C. To conduct clinical trials for new experimental drugs D. D. To manage the hospital's bulk drug procurement and inventory

Q46.A patient develops an anaphylactic reaction shortly after receiving an intravenous antibiotic in the OPD. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate immediate action by the pharmacist?

A. A. Administer epinephrine intramuscularly and call for emergency medical assistance B. B. Stop the infusion, place the patient in Trendelenburg position, and administer oxygen C. C. Give the patient an antihistamine tablet orally to counteract the reaction D. D. Continue the infusion at a slower rate and monitor vital signs

Q47.Which of the following documents is MANDATORY to maintain in the pharmacy for every batch of sterile compounded products dispensed to IPD patients?

A. A. Patient medication administration record (MAR) B. B. Certificate of analysis (COA) from the manufacturer C. C. Batch production record (BPR) with sterility testing documentation D. D. Prescription copy signed by the attending physician

Q48.A hospital pharmacy plans to implement an automated dispensing cabinet (ADC) system. Which of the following is the PRIMARY advantage of this system?

A. A. Reducing the need for licensed pharmacists in the hospital B. B. Improving medication security and reducing medication errors C. C. Decreasing the cost of drug inventory management D. D. Eliminating the requirement for controlled substance documentation

Q49.Which of the following is the CORRECT procedure for handling a cytotoxic drug spill in the sterile compounding area?

A. A. Absorb the spill with absorbent pads, dispose of waste as biohazard, and document the incident B. B. Use a vacuum cleaner to collect the spill immediately to prevent aerosolization C. C. Neutralize the spill with sodium hypochlorite solution before cleaning D. D. Allow the spill to evaporate naturally to avoid exposure to cleaning chemicals

Q50.In an OPD pharmacy, which of the following is the MOST critical factor to verify before dispensing a high-alert medication like insulin to a patient?

A. A. The patient's blood glucose level recorded in the chart B. B. The patient's allergy status to other medications C. C. Confirmation of the patient's understanding of proper storage and administration D. D. The patient's insurance coverage for the medication

Q51.Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, which authority is responsible for the approval of clinical trials in India?

A. A. State Drugs Controller B. B. Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) C. C. Drug Controller General of India (DCGI) D. D. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

Q52.A pharmacy graduate is found to be practicing as a registered pharmacist without having his name entered in the State Pharmacy Council register. Which section of the Pharmacy Act, 1948, does this violate?

A. A. Section 20 B. B. Section 25 C. C. Section 33 D. D. Section 42

Q53.Which of the following drugs is included in Schedule X of the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945?

A. A. Paracetamol 500 mg tablets B. B. Morphine sulphate injection C. C. Metformin 500 mg tablets D. D. Cetirizine 10 mg tablets

Q54.A patient presents with a prescription for diazepam 5 mg tablets. As per the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, 1985, which authority must issue the prescription?

A. A. Any registered medical practitioner B. B. A registered medical practitioner with a narcotic drug license C. C. A pharmacist with a wholesale license D. D. A state government-approved chemist

Q55.Which of the following is NOT a function of the State Pharmacy Council as per the Pharmacy Act, 1948?

A. A. Registering pharmacists and pharmacy technicians B. B. Approving the curriculum for pharmacy education C. C. Conducting disciplinary proceedings against erring pharmacists D. D. Issuing licenses for drug manufacturing units

Q56.A pharmacist dispenses a Schedule H drug without a prescription. Which section of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, is violated?

A. A. Section 18 B. B. Section 32 C. C. Section 27 D. D. Section 17

Q57.Which authority is responsible for the enforcement of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, 1985, in India?

A. A. Central Bureau of Narcotics (CBN) B. B. Narcotic Control Bureau (NCB) C. C. State Excise Department D. D. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

Q58.A pharmacy student asks about the validity period of a drug license issued under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act. What is the correct response?

A. A. 1 year B. B. 2 years C. C. 5 years D. D. Valid until revoked

Q59.Which of the following drugs is included in Schedule C1 of the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules?

A. A. Insulin B. B. Vitamin B12 injections C. C. Oral contraceptives D. D. Anti-cancer drugs

Q60.A pharmacist is asked to dispense a drug listed under the NDPS Act without a prescription. What is the appropriate action?

A. A. Dispense the drug with a warning to the patient B. B. Refuse to dispense and inform the nearest narcotics control authority C. C. Dispense the drug only if the patient provides a copy of the prescription D. D. Sell the drug at a higher price to discourage misuse

Q61.Which of the following is the primary function of the alveoli in the respiratory system?

A. A. To filter and warm the air before it reaches the lungs B. B. To facilitate the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between air and blood C. C. To produce surfactant that reduces surface tension in the lungs D. D. To regulate the pH of blood by controlling bicarbonate levels

Q62.A patient with chronic kidney disease is likely to develop anemia due to a deficiency of which hormone produced by the kidneys?

A. A. Aldosterone B. B. Erythropoietin C. C. Renin D. D. Angiotensin II

Q63.Which of the following structures is responsible for preventing the backflow of blood from the right ventricle to the right atrium?

A. A. Pulmonary valve B. B. Tricuspid valve C. C. Aortic valve D. D. Mitral valve

Q64.A 45-year-old male presents with fatigue, weight loss, and frequent urination. His fasting blood sugar is 200 mg/dL. Which of the following hormones is likely deficient in this patient?

A. A. Glucagon B. B. Insulin C. C. Cortisol D. D. Thyroxine

Q65.Which part of the digestive system is primarily responsible for the absorption of water and electrolytes?

A. A. Stomach B. B. Jejunum C. C. Ileum D. D. Large intestine

Q66.A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease is advised to avoid nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). Which of the following is the most likely reason for this advice?

A. A. NSAIDs increase gastric acid secretion, worsening ulcer formation B. B. NSAIDs reduce mucus production in the stomach, increasing ulcer risk C. C. NSAIDs directly damage the gastric mucosa and impair healing D. D. NSAIDs inhibit the production of prostaglandins, reducing mucosal protection

Q67.Which of the following is a key function of the liver in drug metabolism?

A. A. Converting drugs into active metabolites via hydrolysis B. B. Inactivating drugs through phase II reactions like glucuronidation C. C. Storing drugs for slow release into the bloodstream D. D. Excreting drugs directly into the bile without modification

Q68.A patient with hypertension is prescribed a diuretic to lower blood pressure. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism by which diuretics reduce blood pressure?

A. A. By increasing sodium reabsorption in the kidneys, reducing blood volume B. B. By decreasing sodium and water reabsorption, increasing urine output and reducing blood volume C. C. By directly dilating blood vessels to reduce peripheral resistance D. D. By inhibiting the renin-angiotensin system to reduce aldosterone secretion

Q69.Which of the following vitamins is most likely to be deficient in a patient with malabsorption due to celiac disease?

A. A. Vitamin A B. B. Vitamin B12 C. C. Vitamin C D. D. Vitamin D

Q70.A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed a long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA). Which of the following is the primary therapeutic effect of this drug?

A. A. To reduce inflammation in the airways B. B. To bronchodilate and improve airflow by stimulating beta-2 receptors C. C. To directly increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of hemoglobin D. D. To suppress the cough reflex and reduce mucus production

Q71.Which of the following documents is MANDATORY to be maintained by a registered pharmacist under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, for the sale of Schedule H drugs?

A. A. Purchase invoice duly signed by the registered pharmacist B. B. Prescription register with patient details and prescription number C. C. Daily stock entry in Form 21A D. D. Quarterly inventory report submitted to the State Drug Control Authority

Q72.A pharmacist notices a sudden increase in the sale of cough syrups containing codeine in a locality. What is the FIRST action the pharmacist should take as per legal and ethical guidelines?

A. A. Report the incident to the nearest police station B. B. Notify the local Drug Inspector and maintain a record of sales C. C. Suspend sales immediately and alert other pharmacies in the area D. D. Inform the State Health Department about potential drug abuse

Q73.Which pricing scheme under the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) regulates the ceiling price of essential medicines listed in the National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM)?

A. A. Drug Price Control Order (DPCO), 2013 B. B. Trade Margin Rationalization Scheme (TMRS) C. C. Essential Drug Pricing Policy (EDPP) D. D. National Pharmaceutical Policy (NPP), 2020

Q74.A pharmacy receives a prescription for a Schedule X drug. Which of the following steps is INCORRECT regarding the dispensing process?

A. A. The prescription must be in the handwriting of a registered medical practitioner B. B. The pharmacist must retain the prescription for a minimum of 2 years C. C. The prescription must be written in English only, with no abbreviations D. D. The drug must be dispensed in a container with a 'Red Label' warning

Q75.Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of maintaining a 'Bin Card' in a drug store?

A. A. To track the expiry dates of drugs and prevent stockouts B. B. To record the physical stock of drugs for internal auditing C. C. To document the purchase and issue of controlled substances D. D. To calculate the reorder level for fast-moving items

Q76.A pharmacist is approached by a patient requesting a refill of a prescription for a controlled substance without the original prescription. What is the MOST appropriate response?

A. A. Refuse to dispense and explain that a new prescription is required B. B. Dispense the medication after verifying the patient's identity from records C. C. Contact the prescribing doctor to confirm the prescription details D. D. Allow the patient to take the medication and provide a written warning

Q77.Which of the following is a key responsibility of a pharmacist in drug store management regarding temperature-sensitive drugs?

A. A. Store all drugs in a single refrigerator to minimize costs B. B. Maintain a temperature log for the storage area and refrigerator C. C. Use any available cooling method, including ice packs, for storage D. D. Label temperature-sensitive drugs with their storage temperature only

Q78.A pharmacy owner wants to expand the business by adding a new counter for over-the-counter (OTC) products. Which regulatory requirement must be fulfilled FIRST?

A. A. Obtain a new drug license for the additional counter B. B. Ensure all staff are trained in OTC product counseling C. C. Install a separate cash register for OTC sales D. D. Display the drug license prominently at the new counter

Q79.Which of the following is NOT a component of the 'Good Dispensing Practices' (GDP) recommended by the WHO?

A. A. Dispensing drugs in original manufacturer packaging B. B. Providing patient counseling on drug use and side effects C. C. Using abbreviations in prescriptions to save time D. D. Maintaining confidentiality of patient information

Q80.A pharmacist notices that a batch of a commonly used antibiotic has been recalled by the manufacturer due to contamination. What is the FIRST step the pharmacist should take?

A. A. Return the entire batch to the manufacturer immediately B. B. Isolate the affected batch and place a 'Quarantine' label on it C. C. Continue dispensing the drug but inform patients about the recall D. D. Report the issue to the State Drug Control Authority without delay

Q81.Which of the following is a primary bile acid synthesized in the liver from cholesterol?

A. A. Deoxycholic acid B. B. Lithocholic acid C. C. Cholic acid D. D. Glycocholic acid

Q82.In a patient with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, which of the following laboratory findings is most likely to be elevated?

A. A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) B. B. Serum creatinine C. C. Glycated hemoglobin (HbA1c) D. D. Serum potassium

Q83.Which enzyme is most commonly measured in clinical practice to assess liver function in cases of suspected hepatocellular damage?

A. A. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) B. B. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) C. C. Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) D. D. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)

Q84.A patient presents with fatigue, pallor, and glossitis. Laboratory investigations reveal microcytic hypochromic anemia. Which of the following is the most likely deficient nutrient?

A. A. Vitamin B12 B. B. Iron C. C. Folate D. D. Vitamin C

Q85.Which of the following best describes the role of albumin in blood plasma?

A. A. It is the primary carrier protein for hydrophobic drugs and hormones B. B. It is the main clotting factor in the coagulation cascade C. C. It is a key enzyme in the breakdown of carbohydrates D. D. It is responsible for maintaining osmotic pressure and buffering pH

Q86.In a patient with suspected acute pancreatitis, which of the following biochemical markers is most specific for confirming the diagnosis?

A. A. Serum amylase B. B. Serum lipase C. C. Serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) D. D. Serum alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

Q87.Which of the following is a key function of HDL (High-Density Lipoprotein) in lipid metabolism?

A. A. It transports dietary lipids from the intestine to peripheral tissues B. B. It delivers cholesterol from peripheral tissues back to the liver for excretion C. C. It is the primary carrier of triglycerides in fasting plasma D. D. It is synthesized in the intestinal mucosa and released into the bloodstream

Q88.A patient with chronic liver disease shows elevated prothrombin time (PT) and INR values. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A. A. Increased synthesis of clotting factors by the liver B. B. Deficiency of vitamin K due to malabsorption C. C. Overproduction of anticoagulant proteins D. D. Increased platelet aggregation

Q89.Which of the following statements best describes the role of creatinine in clinical biochemistry?

A. A. It is a byproduct of muscle metabolism and is excreted by the kidneys B. B. It is synthesized in the liver and used for energy production in muscles C. C. It is a hormone released by the thyroid gland to regulate metabolism D. D. It is a neurotransmitter involved in synaptic transmission

Q90.A patient presents with symptoms of tetany and a serum calcium level of 7.5 mg/dL (normal: 8.5–10.5 mg/dL). Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A. A. Hyperparathyroidism B. B. Hypoalbuminemia C. C. Hypoparathyroidism D. D. Vitamin D toxicity

Q91.Which of the following awards is specifically conferred by the Government of Kerala to recognize outstanding contributions in the field of literature?

A. A. Ezhuthachan Puraskaram B. B. Jnanpith Award C. C. Sahitya Akademi Award D. D. Padma Vibhushan

Q92.The 'Kerala Sangeetha Nataka Akademi Award' is given for excellence in which of the following fields?

A. A. Painting and Sculpture B. B. Folk Arts and Theater C. C. Classical Music and Dance D. D. Film and Television

Q93.Under the 'Aarogyakiranam' scheme of Kerala, which category of patients is primarily eligible for financial assistance for organ transplant surgeries?

A. A. Below Poverty Line (BPL) families B. B. Senior citizens above 65 years C. C. Families with an annual income below Rs. 2,00,000 D. D. All Kerala residents irrespective of income

Q94.Which of the following is a key component of the 'Karunya Scheme' launched by the Kerala government?

A. A. Free distribution of essential medicines to all patients in government hospitals B. B. Financial assistance for treatment of chronic illnesses like cancer, haemophilia, and kidney failure C. C. Subsidized health insurance for farmers D. D. Establishment of new medical colleges in rural areas

Q95.Which of the following was the first public sector pharmaceutical company established in India?

A. A. Hindustan Antibiotics Limited (HAL) B. B. Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited (IDPL) C. C. Bengal Chemicals and Pharmaceuticals D. D. Themis Medicare Limited

Q96.Which of the following is a key objective of the National Health Policy 2017 in India to address the rising burden of non-communicable diseases (NCDs)?

A. A. Reducing the out-of-pocket expenditure on health to 30% by 2025 B. B. Increasing the number of sub-centers in rural areas by 50% by 2025 C. C. Establishing district-level health action plans for NCD prevention and control D. D. Making Ayurvedic treatments mandatory for all NCD patients

Q97.Under the National Health Policy 2017, what is the recommended target for the reduction of premature mortality from cardiovascular diseases, cancer, diabetes, or chronic respiratory diseases by 2025?

A. A. 10% reduction B. B. 15% reduction C. C. 25% reduction D. D. 30% reduction

Q98.Under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, which authority is responsible for granting licenses for the manufacture of opioids in India?

A. A. Drug Controller General of India (DCGI) B. B. Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers C. C. State Drugs Controller D. D. Central Bureau of Narcotics

Q99.Which schedule under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, specifies the list of drugs that are exempt from the provision of import of drugs for personal use?

A. A. Schedule C1 B. B. Schedule X C. C. Schedule T D. D. Schedule H

Q100.Which initiative was recently launched by the Kerala Health Department to improve maternal and child health outcomes in tribal communities?

A. A. Arogya Keralam Mission B. B. Arogya Kiranam C. C. Janani Suraksha Yojana D. D. Ayushman Bharat - Health and Wellness Centres

Kerala PSC Pharmacist Gr II Mock 012