Kerala PSC Pharmacist Gr II Mock 009

Q1.A pharmacist is compounding a new immediate-release tablet formulation. Which of the following excipients would be most crucial to ensure rapid drug release from the tablet upon oral administration?

A. A. Lactose (diluent) B. B. Magnesium stearate (lubricant) C. C. Croscarmellose sodium (superdisintegrant) D. D. Povidone (binder)

Q2.A pharmaceutical company needs to sterilize a heat-labile protein solution for injection. Which sterilization method would be most appropriate to maintain the protein's integrity while achieving sterility?

A. A. Dry heat sterilization B. B. Moist heat sterilization (autoclaving) C. C. Gamma radiation sterilization D. D. Membrane filtration sterilization

Q3.A liquid pharmaceutical preparation containing an oxidizable drug is being formulated. To minimize drug degradation due to oxidation, which of the following approaches would be most effective?

A. A. Storing the product in clear glass bottles B. B. Using an acidic buffer system C. C. Incorporating an antioxidant like sodium metabisulfite D. D. Increasing the head space in the container

Q4.A pharmacist observes that an oil-in-water emulsion preparation is showing signs of 'creaming' after a few days. Which of the following strategies would be most effective in preventing or reducing this instability issue?

A. A. Increasing the viscosity of the continuous phase B. B. Decreasing the concentration of the emulsifying agent C. C. Increasing the droplet size of the internal phase D. D. Storing the emulsion at a higher temperature

Q5.A new drug substance is highly susceptible to photodegradation. Which primary packaging material would be the most appropriate choice to protect the drug from light exposure?

A. A. Type I clear borosilicate glass B. B. Polyethylene terephthalate (PET) plastic bottle C. C. Amber colored glass bottle D. D. High-density polyethylene (HDPE) plastic bottle

Q6.A batch of parenteral solution needs to be tested for pyrogens. Which official test method is commonly used for detecting bacterial endotoxins in pharmaceutical products?

A. A. Disintegration test B. B. Limulus Amebocyte Lysate (LAL) test C. C. Dissolution test D. D. Sterility test

Q7.A pharmaceutical manufacturer conducts accelerated stability studies for a new drug product. What is the primary purpose of performing these studies?

A. A. To determine the exact shelf-life under normal storage conditions B. B. To predict the long-term shelf-life of the product in a shorter time C. C. To evaluate the product's efficacy after degradation D. D. To identify potential excipient incompatibilities at extreme temperatures

Q8.A pharmacist is preparing a medicated ointment intended for a skin condition requiring a prolonged occlusive effect and good hydration. Which type of ointment base would be most suitable for this purpose?

A. A. Water-soluble base (e.g., PEG base) B. B. Oleaginous base (e.g., white petrolatum) C. C. Emulsifying base (e.g., hydrophilic ointment) D. D. Absorption base (e.g., lanolin)

Q9.Following a series of product tampering incidents, regulatory bodies mandated the use of tamper-evident packaging for over-the-counter (OTC) drug products. What is the main objective of tamper-evident packaging?

A. A. To make the product child-resistant B. B. To prevent unauthorized alteration of the product C. C. To improve the aesthetic appeal of the packaging D. D. To extend the shelf-life of the product

Q10.Why is it crucial to ensure that ophthalmic solutions and large-volume parenteral (LVP) solutions are isotonic with physiological fluids?

A. A. To enhance the drug's solubility and stability B. B. To prevent pain, irritation, and cellular damage upon administration C. C. To increase the rate of drug absorption into the bloodstream D. D. To allow for easier sterilization of the product

Q11.What is the critical structural feature responsible for the antibacterial activity of penicillins and cephalosporins?

A. A. Thiazolidine ring B. B. Beta-lactam ring C. C. Carboxyl group D. D. Amide side chain

Q12.A drug that structurally resembles the substrate and binds to the active site of an enzyme, preventing the substrate from binding, is an example of what type of inhibition?

A. A. Non-competitive inhibition B. B. Uncompetitive inhibition C. C. Competitive inhibition D. D. Irreversible inhibition

Q13.Which of the following antacids is known for its rapid onset of action but can cause systemic alkalosis and rebound acidity with prolonged use?

A. A. Aluminum hydroxide B. B. Magnesium hydroxide C. C. Calcium carbonate D. D. Sodium bicarbonate

Q14.The active form of Vitamin D, responsible for regulating calcium and phosphate homeostasis, is synthesized primarily in the kidneys. What is its chemical name?

A. A. Ergocalciferol B. B. Cholecalciferol C. C. Calcitriol D. D. Retinoic acid

Q15.A prodrug is an inactive compound that undergoes metabolic conversion in the body to produce an active drug. Which of the following is a classic example of a prodrug that is activated by hydrolysis?

A. A. Enalapril B. B. Aspirin C. C. Levodopa D. D. Prednisone

Q16.Hypokalemia, a condition of low potassium levels in the blood, can lead to severe cardiac arrhythmias. Which of the following is a common pharmaceutical approach to manage mild to moderate hypokalemia?

A. A. Intravenous magnesium sulfate B. B. Oral potassium chloride supplements C. C. Intravenous sodium bicarbonate D. D. Oral calcium gluconate

Q17.Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes by acetylating a specific serine residue in the active site. This mechanism is crucial for its anti-inflammatory, analgesic, and what other important therapeutic effect?

A. A. Antihistaminic B. B. Antipyretic C. C. Anticoagulant D. D. Antiplatelet

Q18.Steroid hormones, such as cortisol and estrogen, typically exert their effects by binding to which type of receptor?

A. A. G-protein coupled receptors (GPCRs) B. B. Intracellular receptors C. C. Ligand-gated ion channels D. D. Receptor tyrosine kinases

Q19.Sulfonamide antibiotics exert their antibacterial action by inhibiting the synthesis of which essential bacterial metabolite?

A. A. Peptidoglycan B. B. Folic acid C. C. DNA gyrase D. D. Protein synthesis

Q20.Technetium-99m (Tc-99m) is widely used in diagnostic imaging due to its ideal physical properties. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic contributing to its suitability?

A. A. Short half-life B. B. Emission of gamma rays C. C. Low patient radiation dose D. D. Emission of alpha particles

Q21.A patient on long-term atorvastatin therapy reports muscle pain and weakness. Which of the following adverse drug reactions is most likely causing these symptoms?

A. A. Hepatotoxicity B. B. Rhabdomyolysis C. C. Pancreatitis D. D. Nephrotoxicity

Q22.A patient stabilized on warfarin for atrial fibrillation is prescribed ibuprofen for osteoarthritis pain. Which of the following is the most significant drug interaction concern?

A. A. Increased risk of bleeding B. B. Decreased efficacy of warfarin C. C. Increased risk of NSAID-induced nephrotoxicity D. D. Reduced absorption of warfarin

Q23.Which of the following is the primary mechanism of action of Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE) inhibitors in treating hypertension?

A. A. Blocking beta-adrenergic receptors B. B. Increasing sodium and water excretion C. C. Inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II D. D. Directly relaxing vascular smooth muscle

Q24.A patient receiving morphine for severe pain is experiencing persistent constipation. What is the pharmacological basis for this common adverse effect?

A. A. Increased intestinal motility B. B. Stimulation of muscarinic receptors C. C. Decreased gastrointestinal secretions and peristalsis D. D. Direct damage to intestinal villi

Q25.A patient on digoxin for heart failure presents with nausea, visual disturbances (yellow-green halos), and bradycardia. These symptoms are indicative of:

A. A. Hypokalemia B. B. Digoxin toxicity C. C. Myocardial infarction D. D. Anaphylactic reaction

Q26.A patient taking a Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor (MAOI) for depression must avoid foods rich in tyramine. Failure to do so can lead to:

A. A. Serotonin syndrome B. B. Hypertensive crisis C. C. Hypoglycemic coma D. D. Extrapyramidal symptoms

Q27.Which class of diuretics primarily acts on the ascending limb of the loop of Henle to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption, leading to potent diuresis?

A. A. Thiazide diuretics B. B. Potassium-sparing diuretics C. C. Loop diuretics D. D. Osmotic diuretics

Q28.Metformin is contraindicated in patients with significant renal impairment primarily due to an increased risk of which serious adverse effect?

A. A. Hypoglycemia B. B. Lactic acidosis C. C. Hepatotoxicity D. D. Pancreatitis

Q29.For rapid relief of acute bronchoconstriction in an asthma attack, which of the following is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

A. A. Inhaled corticosteroids B. B. Long-acting beta-agonists (LABAs) C. C. Short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs) D. D. Leukotriene receptor antagonists

Q30.Atropine, an anticholinergic drug, exerts its effects by:

A. A. Activating nicotinic receptors B. B. Blocking muscarinic receptors C. C. Inhibiting acetylcholinesterase D. D. Stimulating alpha-adrenergic receptors

Q31.A pharmacist receives a new batch of dried *Digitalis purpurea* leaves for use in compounding. To ensure its therapeutic efficacy as a cardiotonic, which of the following quality control parameters is most crucial for evaluating this crude drug?

A. A. Moisture content determination B. B. Ash value measurement C. C. Biological assay for cardiac glycoside activity D. D. Volatile oil content analysis

Q32.A traditional herbal preparation for hypertension contains dried roots of *Rauwolfia serpentina*. Which specific alkaloid from this plant is primarily responsible for its antihypertensive and tranquilizing effects by depleting catecholamines and serotonin from nerve endings?

A. A. Atropine B. B. Morphine C. C. Reserpine D. D. Quinine

Q33.In the context of cardiac glycosides like Digoxin, which structural component is directly responsible for their cardiotonic activity and pharmacological effect on the heart muscle?

A. A. The sugar moiety (glycone) B. B. The steroid nucleus (aglycone/genin) C. C. The ester linkage D. D. The hydroxyl groups on the sugar

Q34.A pharmaceutical company is developing a standardized herbal extract of *Withania somnifera* (Ashwagandha). What is the primary reason for using 'marker compounds' like Withanolides in the standardization process?

A. A. To enhance the drug's shelf life B. B. To identify and quantify characteristic constituents for quality control C. C. To improve the taste and palatability of the extract D. D. To reduce the cost of production

Q35.A batch of Senna leaves intended for pharmaceutical use is found to contain a significant proportion of leaves from *Cassia angustifolia* that have already had their active glycosides extracted. This specific type of adulteration is best described as:

A. A. Substitution with sub-standard commercial varieties B. B. Adulteration by admixture of exhausted drugs C. C. Adulteration by addition of artificially manufactured substances D. D. Substitution with superficially similar but inferior drugs

Q36.A pharmacist is preparing a chemotherapy regimen that includes an alkaloid derived from *Catharanthus roseus* (Vinca). Which of the following pairs correctly identifies an alkaloid from this plant and its primary therapeutic use?

A. A. Strychnine - Central nervous system stimulant B. B. Ergotamine - Migraine treatment C. C. Vinblastine - Antineoplastic agent D. D. Pilocarpine - Glaucoma treatment

Q37.A patient uses an herbal laxative containing Senna. The anthraquinone glycosides present in Senna contribute to its laxative effect primarily by which of the following mechanisms?

A. A. Absorbing water in the intestine to bulk up stool B. B. Inhibiting intestinal motility, allowing more water absorption C. C. Stimulating colonic peristalsis and increasing fluid secretion into the colon D. D. Neutralizing stomach acid to relieve constipation

Q38.Immediately after harvesting, crude drugs like medicinal herbs are often subjected to rapid and controlled drying. What is the most critical reason for this initial processing step?

A. A. To increase the weight of the crude drug for better market value B. B. To prevent enzymatic degradation and microbial growth C. C. To enhance the color and aesthetic appeal of the drug D. D. To facilitate easier pulverization into a fine powder

Q39.A pharmacist is evaluating a batch of Ayurvedic herbal powder for potential contaminants. Which quality control test is most appropriate to specifically detect the presence of toxic heavy metals such as lead or arsenic?

A. A. Determination of total ash content B. B. Volatile matter content analysis C. C. Limit test for heavy metals D. D. Microbial load determination

Q40.A laboratory technician is performing a preliminary screening for the presence of alkaloids in a plant extract. Which of the following reagents is commonly used as a general precipitating reagent for alkaloids, forming characteristic precipitates?

A. A. Benedict's reagent B. B. Fehling's solution C. C. Mayer's reagent D. D. Biuret reagent

Q41.What is the primary purpose of a barcode scanning system in a hospital pharmacy?

A. A. To track patient medication adherence B. B. To automate the dispensing process C. C. To prevent medication errors at the point of administration D. D. To monitor inventory levels

Q42.What is the term for the process of preparing a sterile solution or medication in a way that prevents microbial contamination?

A. A. Aseptic technique B. B. Sterile compounding C. C. Clean room preparation D. D. Sanitization

Q43.Which of the following is a key component of an effective drug distribution system in a hospital?

A. A. Automated dispensing cabinets B. B. Unit dose packaging C. C. Barcode scanning D. D. All of the above are important, but B is the most critical

Q44.What is the primary responsibility of a pharmacist in an OPD pharmacy setting?

A. A. To dispense medications to inpatients B. B. To provide patient counseling and education C. C. To prepare sterile solutions D. D. To manage inventory levels

Q45.What is the term for the process of reviewing a patient's medication regimen to identify potential drug interactions or other safety concerns?

A. A. Medication reconciliation B. B. Drug utilization review C. C. Medication therapy management D. D. Adverse drug reaction reporting

Q46.What is the primary goal of a hospital's medication error reporting system?

A. A. To punish pharmacists or nurses who make errors B. B. To identify and correct system flaws that contribute to errors C. C. To track medication errors for quality improvement purposes D. D. To educate patients about the risks of medication errors

Q47.Which of the following is a critical step in the preparation of a sterile solution?

A. A. Using a laminar airflow hood B. B. Wearing sterile gloves C. C. Using a sterile syringe and needle D. D. All of the above

Q48.What is the primary benefit of using automated dispensing cabinets in a hospital pharmacy?

A. A. To reduce medication errors B. B. To increase efficiency and reduce labor costs C. C. To improve patient satisfaction D. D. To enhance medication security

Q49.Which of the following is a key principle of aseptic technique?

A. A. Using sterile equipment and supplies B. B. Minimizing the number of people involved in the preparation of a sterile solution C. C. Working in a clean and well-ventilated area D. D. All of the above

Q50.What is the primary role of a pharmacist in an IPD pharmacy setting?

A. A. To dispense medications to outpatients B. B. To prepare sterile solutions and medications C. C. To provide patient counseling and education D. D. To manage inventory levels

Q51.Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, which Schedule lists drugs that are required to be sold by retail only on the prescription of a Registered Medical Practitioner?

A. A. Schedule C B. B. Schedule H C. C. Schedule X D. D. Schedule W

Q52.A pharmacist receives a prescription for a Schedule H drug. Which of the following actions is mandatory according to the Pharmacy Act, 1948?

A. A. Maintain a separate register for Schedule H drugs with date, name, and quantity supplied B. B. Verify the prescription signature of the prescriber in the state medical council register C. C. Dispense the drug only after verifying the patient's Aadhaar number D. D. Issue a warning slip to the patient about potential drug abuse

Q53.Which authority is responsible for the enforcement of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, 1985 in India?

A. A. State Drug Controller B. B. Central Bureau of Narcotics C. C. National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority D. D. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

Q54.A pharmacy student is asked to identify a drug listed under Schedule G of the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules. Which of the following is the most likely category of drugs included in Schedule G?

A. A. Drugs that are exempt from the provisions of the Act B. B. Drugs that are required to be sold on prescription but not included in Schedule H or X C. C. Drugs that are habit-forming and require special licenses for sale D. D. Drugs that are used for the treatment of mental disorders

Q55.Under the Pharmacy Act, 1948, which of the following is a requirement for a person to be registered as a pharmacist in the State Register of Pharmacists?

A. A. Completion of a Diploma in Pharmacy course from a recognized institution B. B. Passing the Kerala PSC Pharmacist Grade II exam C. C. Having a minimum of 3 years of experience in a government hospital D. D. Obtaining a license from the State Drug Controller

Q56.Which of the following drugs is NOT included in the list of psychotropic substances under the NDPS Act, 1985?

A. A. Diazepam B. B. Alprazolam C. C. Codeine D. D. Cannabis

Q57.A pharmacist dispenses a Schedule C drug without maintaining the required records. What is the most likely legal consequence under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940?

A. A. Cancellation of the pharmacy license B. B. Imprisonment for up to 10 years C. C. Fine up to ₹20,000 D. D. Temporary suspension of the pharmacist's registration

Q58.Which of the following is a correct statement about the sale of drugs under Schedule H1 of the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules?

A. A. These drugs can be sold without a prescription if the quantity is less than 5 units B. B. The pharmacist must maintain a separate register for Schedule H1 drugs with specific details C. C. These drugs are exempt from the requirement of being sold under a prescription D. D. Schedule H1 drugs are only available in government hospitals

Q59.Under the NDPS Act, 1985, which authority has the power to issue licenses for the cultivation of opium poppy?

A. A. State Government B. B. Central Government C. C. State Drug Controller D. D. Central Bureau of Narcotics

Q60.A pharmacist is asked to dispense a drug listed under Schedule X. Which of the following actions is NOT required by law?

A. A. Verify the prescription is written in his/her own handwriting B. B. Maintain a separate register for Schedule X drugs C. C. Supply the drug only against a prescription with a duplicate copy D. D. Ensure the prescription is not older than 3 months

Q61.Which part of the nephron is primarily responsible for the reabsorption of glucose in the kidney?

A. A. Proximal convoluted tubule B. B. Loop of Henle C. C. Distal convoluted tubule D. D. Collecting duct

Q62.A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed a bronchodilator. Which physiological change in the respiratory system does this drug primarily target?

A. A. Decreased alveolar surface area B. B. Increased mucus production in bronchi C. C. Bronchoconstriction and airway resistance D. D. Reduced elastin in lung parenchyma

Q63.Which hormone is primarily responsible for the regulation of calcium and phosphate homeostasis in the body?

A. A. Insulin B. B. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) C. C. Growth hormone D. D. Thyroxine

Q64.During drug dispensing, a pharmacist notices that a patient's prescription includes a drug that may cause photosensitivity. Which part of the skin is most likely affected by this adverse drug reaction?

A. A. Epidermis B. B. Dermis C. C. Subcutaneous layer D. D. Sebaceous glands

Q65.A patient with hypertension is prescribed a diuretic to reduce blood volume. Which part of the nephron does this drug primarily act on to achieve its therapeutic effect?

A. A. Glomerulus B. B. Proximal convoluted tubule C. C. Loop of Henle D. D. Distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct

Q66.Which of the following is a primary function of the lymphatic system in maintaining fluid balance in the body?

A. A. Transporting oxygen to tissues B. B. Returning excess interstitial fluid to the bloodstream C. C. Producing red blood cells D. D. Filtering pathogens in the blood

Q67.A patient with diabetes mellitus is at risk of developing ketoacidosis due to a deficiency in the metabolism of which nutrient?

A. A. Proteins B. B. Carbohydrates C. C. Fats D. D. Vitamins

Q68.Which part of the gastrointestinal tract is responsible for the absorption of most nutrients, including vitamins and minerals?

A. A. Stomach B. B. Duodenum and jejunum C. C. Ileum D. D. Colon

Q69.A pharmacist counseling a patient about a new medication should emphasize the importance of monitoring which organ function, as many drugs are metabolized and excreted by it?

A. A. Heart B. B. Liver C. C. Lungs D. D. Pancreas

Q70.Which of the following is a key component of health education aimed at preventing non-communicable diseases like hypertension and diabetes?

A. A. Promoting routine vaccination B. B. Encouraging regular physical activity and balanced diet C. C. Providing antibiotics for infections D. D. Conducting mass deworming programs

Q71.What is the primary objective of a pharmacy and therapeutics committee in a hospital setting?

A. A. To regulate the pricing of pharmaceutical products B. B. To evaluate and recommend pharmacotherapeutic agents for formulary inclusion C. C. To monitor patient adherence to medication regimens D. D. To manage the inventory of pharmaceutical supplies

Q72.A patient is prescribed a medication with a dosage of 0.5 mg per kilogram of body weight. If the patient weighs 70 kg, what is the total dose of the medication that should be administered?

A. A. 35 mg B. B. 40 mg C. C. 50 mg D. D. 35 mg is correct but the calculation should consider the patient's age

Q73.What is the term for the process by which a pharmacy or healthcare institution reviews and compares the prices of different pharmaceutical products to ensure cost-effectiveness?

A. A. Drug utilization review B. B. Pharmacoeconomic analysis C. C. Price benchmarking D. D. Formulary management

Q74.A patient experiences an adverse reaction to a medication. What should be the first step in managing this situation?

A. A. Discontinue the suspected medication immediately B. B. Adjust the dosage of the medication C. C. Monitor the patient closely for signs of worsening D. D. Administer an antidote if available

Q75.What is the purpose of a medication use evaluation (MUE) in a healthcare setting?

A. A. To assess the financial impact of medication use on the institution B. B. To evaluate the appropriateness and effectiveness of medication use C. C. To monitor patient compliance with medication regimens D. D. To compare the prices of different pharmaceutical products

Q76.In the context of pharmacy practice, what does the term 'therapeutic interchange' refer to?

A. A. Switching a patient from one brand of a medication to another B. B. Substituting one medication for another within the same therapeutic class C. C. Changing a patient's medication regimen due to an adverse reaction D. D. Converting a patient from a brand-name medication to a generic version

Q77.A pharmacist is counseling a patient who has been prescribed a medication that is known to have significant drug interactions. What should the pharmacist do?

A. A. Inform the patient about the potential for drug interactions and provide guidance on how to minimize risks B. B. Advise the patient to avoid taking the medication with other drugs C. C. Tell the patient that drug interactions are rare and not a concern D. D. Suggest an alternative medication that has fewer interactions

Q78.What is the purpose of a 'just-in-time' inventory system in a pharmacy setting?

A. A. To stock up on medications in anticipation of increased demand B. B. To maintain a minimal inventory level, replenishing stock as needed C. C. To manage the storage conditions of pharmaceutical products D. D. To monitor the expiration dates of medications

Q79.A hospital pharmacy is considering implementing an automated dispensing system. What is a key benefit of such a system?

A. A. Reduced labor costs for pharmacy staff B. B. Improved accuracy in medication dispensing C. C. Enhanced patient privacy D. D. Increased storage capacity for medications

Q80.What is the term for the study of the economic impact of pharmaceutical products and services on healthcare systems?

A. A. Pharmacology B. B. Pharmacoepidemiology C. C. Pharmacoeconomics D. D. Pharmaceutical chemistry

Q81.Which of the following is a primary function of albumin in blood plasma?

A. A. Transporting oxygen to tissues B. B. Maintaining colloid osmotic pressure C. C. Facilitating blood clotting D. D. Regulating blood glucose levels

Q82.A patient presents with symptoms of fatigue, pallor, and glossitis. Lab investigations reveal microcytic hypochromic anemia and low serum ferritin. Which biochemical marker is most likely deficient?

A. A. Vitamin B12 B. B. Folate C. C. Iron D. D. Vitamin D

Q83.In clinical biochemistry, which enzyme is commonly elevated in liver damage due to alcohol abuse?

A. A. Alpha-amylase B. B. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) C. C. Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) D. D. Creatine kinase (CK)

Q84.A patient on long-term anticonvulsant therapy develops osteomalacia. Which biochemical abnormality is most likely responsible?

A. A. Hypercalcemia B. B. Hypophosphatemia C. C. Elevated alkaline phosphatase D. D. Low serum magnesium

Q85.Which of the following is a key feature of the urea cycle?

A. A. Occurs entirely in the cytoplasm B. B. Requires biotin as a cofactor C. C. Produces ammonia as a byproduct D. D. Converts ammonia to urea for excretion

Q86.A diabetic patient's urine test shows positive for ketones. Which biochemical process is primarily responsible for ketone production?

A. A. Glycolysis B. B. Lipolysis C. C. Glycogenolysis D. D. Gluconeogenesis

Q87.Which of the following is a non-protein nitrogenous compound excreted in urine?

A. A. Glucose B. B. Urea C. C. Hemoglobin D. D. Bilirubin

Q88.A patient with chronic renal failure is likely to have elevated levels of which of the following in blood?

A. A. Creatinine B. B. Albumin C. C. Sodium D. D. Glucose

Q89.Which biochemical test is most specific for detecting myocardial infarction within the first 6 hours?

A. A. Troponin I B. B. Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) C. C. Myoglobin D. D. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)

Q90.A patient with suspected hyperthyroidism would likely show which of the following biochemical findings?

A. A. Elevated TSH, low free T4 B. B. Low TSH, elevated free T4 C. C. Normal TSH, elevated free T3 D. D. Elevated TSH, elevated free T4

Q91.Which of the following awards is presented by the Government of Kerala to recognize excellence in the field of Ayurveda?

A. A. Dr. Syamala Kumari Award B. B. Vaidya Ratnam Award C. C. Sree Chithira Tirunal Award D. D. Mahakavi Vallathol Award

Q92.The 'Jeevan Raksha Padak' series of awards is associated with which of the following?

A. A. Bravery and life-saving acts B. B. Outstanding contributions in medical research C. C. Excellence in public health administration D. D. Significant achievements in traditional medicine

Q93.Under the 'Aarogyam' scheme of Kerala, which category of patients is primarily covered for free treatment of specified non-communicable diseases (NCDs) like diabetes and hypertension?

A. A. BPL families only B. B. All Keralites above 40 years of age C. C. Government employees and pensioners D. D. Families enrolled under Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY)

Q94.Which of the following is a key objective of the 'Kudumbashree' initiative in Kerala that indirectly supports public health outcomes?

A. A. Providing free surgical interventions for cardiac diseases B. B. Ensuring food security through community kitchens in all panchayats C. C. Promoting women-led micro-enterprises to improve household income and nutrition D. D. Distributing free generic medicines through primary health centers

Q95.Which of the following is the first indigenous vaccine developed in India?

A. A. BCG vaccine B. B. Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) C. C. Rotavac D. D. Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV)

Q96.Which of the following is a key objective of the National Health Policy 2017 of India aimed at improving healthcare delivery?

A. A. Achieving universal health coverage by 2030 exclusively through private sector partnerships B. B. Reducing infant mortality rate to 28 by 2025 through strengthened primary healthcare C. C. Mandating all state governments to allocate 5% of their GDP to health expenditure D. D. Eliminating all non-communicable diseases by 2030 through free drug distribution schemes

Q97.Under the National Health Policy 2017, which of the following strategies is recommended to address the shortage of healthcare professionals in rural areas?

A. A. Mandatory rural postings for all medical graduates for a minimum of 5 years B. B. Increasing the number of medical colleges in urban areas to boost overall physician supply C. C. Expanding the role of AYUSH practitioners in primary healthcare delivery through bridge courses D. D. Phasing out government-run primary health centers in favor of private sector clinics

Q98.Which of the following is a key function of the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) in India as per the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940?

A. A. Conducting clinical trials for allopathic drugs only B. B. Granting manufacturing licenses for drugs and cosmetics C. C. Setting retail prices for essential medicines D. D. Regulating the sale of Ayurvedic drugs exclusively

Q99.A pharmacist receives a prescription for a Schedule H drug. What is the MOST appropriate action regarding the labeling of the dispensed medication?

A. A. Label the container with 'For external use only' B. B. Affix a red label stating 'Schedule H Drug - Not to be sold without prescription' C. C. Include the patient's name and address on the label D. D. Use a blue label with the doctor's registration number

Q100.Which of the following initiatives was recently launched by the Kerala government to improve maternal and child health outcomes in the state?

A. A. Arogya Keralam Mission B. B. Safe Motherhood Programme under NHM C. C. Healthy Mother-Healthy Child Project D. D. Thalolam Scheme for maternal nutrition

Kerala PSC Pharmacist Gr II Mock 009