Q1. The Himalayan ranges from Tista to Brahmaputra rivers called

Answer: D) The Assam Himalaya

Himalayas are divided into 4 longitudinal sections: Punjab (Indus-Sutlej), Kumaon (Sutlej-Kali), Nepal (Kali-Tista), Assam (Tista-Brahmaputra).

Q2. Read the following statement and find out correct option. (i) El Nino is a narrow warm current, responsible for widespread floods and droughts in the tropical regions of the world. (ii) Strong pacific trade winds blow from surface water westward cause abnormal accumulation of cold water in the central and eastern pacific region.

Answer: B) i is only correct

El Niño definition is correct. Statement (ii) muddles La Niña conditions with El Niño — trade winds normally accumulate warm water in the WEST, cold upwelling in the EAST.

Q3. In Remote sensing, the scanners scan the Earth in a series of lines from one side of the Swath to the other is called

Answer: C) Across Track Scanning

Across-Track (whisk-broom) scanning is perpendicular to the flight direction — side-to-side of the swath.

Q4. Name the type of drainage pattern looks like the branching of a tree

Answer: D) Dendritic

Dendritic = tree-branching pattern, develops on uniform-resistance rocks.

Q5. Identify wrong pair from the given Lakes of Kerala

Answer: D) Manakkodi - Thrissur

Manakkodi lake is in Kollam district, not Thrissur.

Q6. The 'Pandarapattom Proclamation' in Travancore was related to

Answer: C) Land Reforms

Pandarapattom Proclamation (1865) by Ayilyam Thirunal Maharaja made tenant-farmers absolute owners of the land they cultivated.

Q7. The 'Liberation Struggle' in Kerala was a response to

Answer: D) Educational and land reforms

Vimochana Samaram (1959) was a response to EMS government's Education Bill and Agrarian Relations Bill.

Q8. Who is the Author of the Book 'The Wretched of the Earth' ?

Answer: A) Frantz Fanon

Frantz Fanon, 'Les Damnés de la Terre' (1961) — landmark anti-colonial text.

Q9. India's 'Look East Policy' was enunciated by

Answer: B) Narasimha Rao

P.V. Narasimha Rao announced the Look East Policy in 1991-92 as part of post-liberalisation foreign-policy reorientation.

Q10. The Bretton Woods institutions were established to

Answer: C) Preserve global financial stability

Bretton Woods (July 1944) → IMF + World Bank for global financial stability after WWII.

Q11. Watershed management programmes primarily aim to

Answer: A) Improve groundwater recharge and soil conservation

Watershed management = soil + groundwater conservation.

Q12. Which feature distinguishes social security from social welfare ?

Answer: C) Legal entitlement based on contribution or status

Social security is a contributory legal entitlement (insurance-style), while welfare is needs-based assistance.

Q13. Why is decentralisation important for effective rural employment programmes ?

Answer: B) It improves local accountability and planning

Decentralisation improves local accountability and bottom-up planning.

Q14. Which principle underlying labour legislation most directly supports fair working conditions ?

Answer: B) Protection of workers from unequal bargaining power

Labour legislation rests on protecting workers from unequal bargaining power vs employers.

Q15. Which indicator best reflects inclusive socio-economic development ?

Answer: C) Human Development Index

HDI combines health, education, and income — captures inclusive development better than single-metric GDP.

Q16. Statements regarding G. R. Indugopan's novel 'Ano' and its historical context (I) 16th century journey of white albino elephant from Kochi to Rome (II) Novel exploring Kerala's transoceanic Renaissance Europe connections (III) Honoured with Kendra Sahithya Akademi Award in 2025

Answer: A) Only I and II

Verified via independent sources. I and II are true. III is false — 'Ano' won the Kerala Sahitya Akademi (state) Award, not the Kendra (central) Sahitya Akademi 2025. Independent verification: Onmanorama and Wikipedia confirm Indugopan's Aano won the Kerala Sahitya Akademi (state) Award for 2024 (announced June 2025) — NOT the Kendra Sahitya Akademi. Statement III is therefore false.

Q17. Statements regarding Kunchan Nambiar (I) 18th century architect of Thullal, 'People's Poet' (II) P. Govinda Pillai catalogued exactly sixty Thullal compositions in his initial list (III) Works expanded over time including 'Sundopasundopakhyanam' found by 'Sahithya Panchanan'

Answer: D) All of the above (I, II and III)

⚠️ DISPUTED: All three accepted in PSC convention. Sahithya Panchanan = P.K. Parameswaran Nair. Note: Wikipedia today cites 64 Thullal compositions for Nambiar, while traditional Kerala-PSC prep books cite P. Govinda Pillai's 1881 list as having 60. If PSC's answer-key follows the older textbook tradition, D (All) is correct; if it follows current scholarship, B (Only I and III) is correct. Reader judgement advised — both interpretations are defensible.

Q18. Which statements are correct about poet T. Ubaid? (i) Bilingual poet contributing to Malayalam and Kannada (ii) 'Vidavangal' was symbolic farewell to Kannada when poet chose Malayalam during Kerala formation (iii) 'Vidavangal' was first presented at Sahithya Parishad conference in Kasaragod in 1908

Answer: A) Only i and ii

Statement iii is impossible — T. Ubaid was born in 1908; he couldn't have presented poetry the year of his birth.

Q19. Arrange the following Renaissance leaders according to their year of birth: (i) Aarattupuzha Velayudhapanikkar (ii) Vakkom Moulavi (iii) Chattambi Swamikal (iv) P. Palpu

Answer: D) i, iii, iv, ii

Aarattupuzha (1825) → Chattambi (1853) → P. Palpu (1863) → Vakkom Moulavi (1873).

Q20. Which of the following worship centers is not associated with Buddhism ?

Answer: D) Sabarimala Temple

Sabarimala = primarily Ayyappa (Hindu) tradition; the other three have documented Buddhist origin claims.

Q21. Which port was also known as Murichipathanam ?

Answer: A) Mussiris

Muziris (Muchiripattanam/Murachipattanam) — ancient Roman-trade port, identified with Kodungallur.

Q22. The Games were known as the British Empire Games

Answer: C) Commonwealth Games

Commonwealth Games were originally called British Empire Games at first edition (1930, Hamilton).

Q23. The first Indian women to win an Olympic medal

Answer: B) Karnam Malleswari

Karnam Malleswari won bronze in weightlifting at Sydney 2000 — first Indian woman Olympic medallist.

Q24. Venue of 2026 FIFA world cup (i) United States (ii) Mexico (iii) Canada

Answer: D) All of the above (i, ii and iii)

FIFA World Cup 2026 is co-hosted by USA, Mexico, and Canada.

Q25. Who was the recipient of the 2023 Arjuna Award in Table Tennis ?

Answer: A) Ayhika Mukherjee

Ayhika Mukherjee received the 2023 Arjuna Award in Table Tennis (announced January 2024). (Wikipedia explicitly lists Ayhika Mukherjee in Table Tennis (Female) for 2023; Sreeja Akula won in 2022; Madhurika Patkar won in 2020.)

Q26. A school nutrition programme introduces pulses and eggs to reduce stunting in children. This mainly improves

Answer: B) Protein availability

Pulses and eggs are protein sources; stunting is largely a protein-energy deficiency.

Q27. Satellite imagery is used to monitor paddy cultivation across seasons in Kerala. This is an example of

Answer: A) Remote sensing for resource monitoring

Satellite-based seasonal paddy monitoring = resource-monitoring application of remote sensing.

Q28. A hill village replaces diesel generators with a micro-hydro system. Which is the most direct benefit ?

Answer: C) Reduction in air pollution and fuel cost

Micro-hydro replaces fossil fuel — direct benefit is reduced air pollution and fuel costs.

Q29. A natural forest is replaced with a single-species plantation and pest attacks increase within two years. The most likely reason is

Answer: B) Reduced species diversity

⚠️ Note: Single-species plantation = reduced species diversity → no natural predators to control pests. Both B (reduced species diversity) and C (genetic uniformity → vulnerability) are partially correct. PSC convention typically picks B for "single-species plantation" wording (it's about species, not cultivar). If PSC's key chooses C, the reasoning is that monoculture genetic uniformity is the proximate mechanism for pest outbreak.

Q30. Nano-coatings on medical implants reduce bacterial infection mainly because they

Answer: B) Interact with microbes at molecular scale

Nano-coatings act at molecular scale — disrupt microbial cell walls/membranes through size-dependent interactions.

Q31. The States Reorganisation Commission consisted of how many members ?

Answer: B) Three

Three members: Justice Fazal Ali (chairman), K.M. Panikkar, H.N. Kunzru. Set up 1953, report 1955.

Q32. Which of the following were major components of the Green Revolution ? (i) HYV seeds (ii) Use of chemical fertilizers (iii) Expansion of irrigation facilities

Answer: D) All of the above

Green Revolution rested on the HYV-fertilizer-irrigation triad.

Q33. Which country was first to recognise Bangladesh as an independent state in 1971 ?

Answer: B) Bhutan

Bhutan recognized Bangladesh on 6 December 1971 — minutes before India's recognition the same day.

Q34. 'Estado Da India' is popularly known as

Answer: A) Portuguese East India Company

Estado da Índia = Portuguese imperial possessions in India (Goa-headquartered).

Q35. Which British Prime Minister is most closely associated with the policy of appeasement towards Nazi Germany ?

Answer: B) Neville Chamberlain

Neville Chamberlain — Munich Agreement 1938, 'peace for our time'.

Q36. Which of the following is a store instruction ?

Answer: A) A=B

A=B is an assignment/store instruction; READ=input, PRINT=output, IF=control flow.

Q37. Match the following: (i) Malware (ii) Spamming (iii) Cyber Law (iv) Phishing — with (a) Cybercrime (b) Virus (c) Stealing data (d) Email

Answer: D) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c

Malware-Virus, Spamming-Email, Cyber Law-Cybercrime, Phishing-Stealing data.

Q38. Statements about software packages — which are incorrect? (i) A software package is a set of programs designed for a specific application (ii) MS Word and MS Excel are application software packages (iii) Compilers and assemblers are application software packages (iv) Software packages are generally developed to meet common user requirements

Answer: B) iii only

Only iii is incorrect — compilers and assemblers are SYSTEM software, not application software.

Q39. Which network device operates at the Data Link layer of the OSI model and is used to divide a network into segments ?

Answer: B) Switch

Switch operates at OSI Layer 2 (Data Link) — used for LAN segmentation. Routers are Layer 3.

Q40. Which of the following correctly creates a clickable link to https://www.mypage.com ?

Answer: C) <a href="https://www.mypage.com">My Page </a>

Correct anchor syntax: <a href="URL">label</a>. The 'src' attribute is for media, not links.

Q41. Which among the following equation used in national income estimation is incorrect ?

Answer: D) Indirect tax - Direct tax = Net indirect tax

Net Indirect Tax = Indirect Tax − Subsidies (NOT − Direct Tax).

Q42. The Mahalanobis Model was applied in India during which Five Year Plan, and what was its main emphasis ?

Answer: B) Second Five Year Plan - Investment in heavy, basic and capital good industries

Mahalanobis-Nehru model drove the Second Five Year Plan (1956-61) — heavy industries, public-sector capital goods.

Q43. What are the two types of income taxes in India ?

Answer: C) Personal Income Tax and Corporation Tax

India's two income taxes: Personal Income Tax (individuals) + Corporation/Corporate Tax (companies).

Q44. What is open market operations of RBI ?

Answer: A) Buying and selling eligible securities in the money market

OMO = RBI buying/selling government securities in the open money market to control liquidity.

Q45. Which of the following Consumer rights are listed under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 ? (i) Right to Safety (ii) Right to be Informed (iii) Right to Choose (iv) Right to be heard (v) Right to seek Redressal (vi) Right to Consumer Awareness

Answer: D) i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi

All six consumer rights are codified under Consumer Protection Act, 2019.

Q46. Which of the following statement(s) is false about the Dutch in Kerala ?

Answer: A) The Dutch introduced the first printing press in Kerala

FALSE: The PORTUGUESE introduced the first printing press in India/Kerala (Vaipikotta, c.1577) — not the Dutch. (The Portuguese established the first printing press at Saint Paul's College, Goa, 1556 — and at Vaipikotta in Kerala c. 1577. Dutch arrived later, 1604, and were not the first.)

Q47. Match the following pairs: (i) Mukkutti Agitation - Aarattupuzha Velayudhapanicker (ii) Kallumala Agitation - Ayyankali (iii) Misra bhojanam - Sahodaran Ayyappan (iv) Channar Agitation - Poikayil Yohannan

Answer: B) i, ii and iii

(i), (ii), (iii) correct in PSC convention. (iv) is wrong — Channar Lahala wasn't led by Poikayil Yohannan. (Pair iv is wrong because Channar Lahala 1859 was led by Nadar/Channar women themselves, not by Poikayil Yohannan who founded PRDS later.)

Q48. Who won the Best FIFA Women's Player award in 2025 ?

Answer: D) Aitana Bonmati

Aitana Bonmatí (Spain) won the 2025 Best FIFA Women's Player — her third consecutive title.

Q49. Which of the following statements about Aurangzeb are correct? (i) He reimposed Jizya (ii) He pursued an aggressive Deccan policy (iii) He encouraged Din-i-Ilahi

Answer: A) Only i and ii

Aurangzeb reimposed Jizya (1679) and pursued aggressive Deccan annexations. Din-i-Ilahi was Akbar's syncretic faith — not Aurangzeb.

Q50. Indian Councils Act 1909 statements: (i) Known as Morley-Minto Reforms (ii) Introduced separate electorates (iii) Introduced provincial autonomy (iv) Increased size of legislative councils

Answer: A) i, ii and iv only

Morley-Minto 1909 introduced separate electorates and enlarged councils. Provincial autonomy came with the 1935 Government of India Act.

Q51. The average of two numbers is ab. If one number is a, the other is

Answer: A) 2ab - a

(a + x)/2 = ab → x = 2ab − a.

Q52. If 2^x = 1024, then what is the value of x ?

Answer: C) 10

1024 = 2^10 → x = 10.

Q53. The ratio between three numbers is 2:3:4 and their sum is 27. Find the product of the three numbers.

Answer: D) 648

Numbers 2k+3k+4k = 9k = 27 → k = 3. Numbers: 6, 9, 12. Product = 648.

Q54. Anand is thrice as good a workman as Bola, and together they finish a piece of work in 15 days. In how many days will Bola alone finish the job ?

Answer: D) 60

Combined rate = 4B = 1/15 → B = 1/60 → Bola alone = 60 days.

Q55. The height of a cuboid whose volume is 225 m³ and base area is 25 m² is

Answer: B) 9

Height = Volume / Base Area = 225/25 = 9 m.

Q56. How many terms are there in the AP: 4, 7, 10, ..., 100 ?

Answer: C) 33

n = (100 − 4)/3 + 1 = 33.

Q57. Arun bought items A and B for Rs. 192. He sold the item A at a profit of 20% and item B at a loss of 20%. If his total gain is Rs. 8, then what is the cost price of item A ?

Answer: A) Rs. 116

0.2x − 0.2(192 − x) = 8 → 0.4x − 38.4 = 8 → x = 116.

Q58. After 3 years of investment at 5% per annum, the compound interest on a certain amount is Rs. 61 more than the simple interest on the amount. Find the amount.

Answer: C) Rs. 8,000

CI − SI for 3 years at 5% = P × 0.007625 = 61 → P = 8,000.

Q59. Simplify 6387/8516

Answer: B) 3/4

6387 = 3 × 2129; 8516 = 4 × 2129. Hence 3/4.

Q60. If 20% of sum of m items is its average, then what is the value of m ?

Answer: C) 5

Sum × 0.20 = Sum/m → m = 1/0.20 = 5.

Q61. The clock was set on Monday 7:40 am. If the clock gains 10 minutes per hour, what will be the time in that clock on Tuesday 11:10 am ?

Answer: A) 3:45 pm

Real elapsed = 27.5 hr × 10 min gain = 275 min = 4h35m. Clock shows 11:10 am + 4:35 = 3:45 pm.

Q62. Today is Monday. After 61 days it will be

Answer: B) Saturday

61 mod 7 = 5 → Monday + 5 days = Saturday.

Q63. If SUN is coded as HFM and STAR is coded as HGZI, decode the word GALAXY

Answer: A) TZOZCB

Reverse-alphabet code (A↔Z, B↔Y, …): G→T, A→Z, L→O, A→Z, X→C, Y→B = TZOZCB.

Q64. Looking at a portrait of a man Arun said. His mother is the wife of my father's son. I have no brother or sister. At whose portrait was Arun looking ?

Answer: A) His Son

'Father's son' = Arun himself (no siblings). 'His mother is my wife' → portrait is Arun's son.

Q65. Sanju was facing East. He walks 4m forward and after turning to his right walked 3m. Again he turned to his right and walked 4m. After this he turned back. Which direction is he facing now ?

Answer: C) East

E → S → W → about-face = E.

Q66. If KARZXEF coded as 8501942 and BZWXRFA coded as 3179025. What is the code of WRAEKF ?

Answer: D) 705482

Letter map: K=8, A=5, R=0, Z=1, X=9, E=4, F=2, B=3, W=7. WRAEKF = 7-0-5-4-8-2 = 705482.

Q67. Find out the wrong number in the number series. 6, 15, 28, 44, 66, 91

Answer: C) 44

Differences should be 9,13,17,21,25 (AP, d=4). 28+17=45, but series has 44. 44 is wrong.

Q68. By interchanging the signs × and -, and numbers 2 and 5 which of the following equation will be correct? (I) 10 ÷ 2 × 3 + 5 - 6 = 11 (II) 5 × 4 + 2 - 6 ÷ 3 = 11

Answer: A) Only I

After swap: I → 10÷5 − 3 + 2×6 = 2 − 3 + 12 = 11 ✓; II → 2 − 4 + 5×6÷3 = 2 − 4 + 10 = 8 ✗.

Q69. Which one is largest 2^22, 2^(2^2), 22^2, 222 ?

Answer: A) 2^22

2^22 = 4,194,304 ≫ 22²=484 ≫ 222 ≫ 2^(2²) = 16.

Q70. 1/4 + 1/4 ÷ 1/4 × 1/4 - 1/4 = ?

Answer: A) 1/4

BODMAS: 1/4 + (1/4 ÷ 1/4 × 1/4) − 1/4 = 1/4 + 1/4 − 1/4 = 1/4.

Q71. De facto means

Answer: B) In reality or in fact

De facto (Latin) = in reality, in fact. (De jure = by law, the contrast.)

Q72. A life story written by a person about himself is called

Answer: B) Autobiography

Autobiography = self-written life story.

Q73. The train will _____ at 6 a.m.

Answer: A) leave

Will + base form → 'will leave'.

Q74. Choose the correctly spelt word.

Answer: C) Definitely

Correct spelling: Definitely.

Q75. To throw in the towel means

Answer: B) To give up

Boxing idiom — throwing in the towel signals surrender.

Q76. Identify the correct sentence from the following options.

Answer: A) Flyers were all around the venue

Correct spelling 'flyers' = handbills/leaflets.

Q77. Fill in the blank by adding the correct phrasal verbs given as options. We had to ___ the party to another day owing to the sudden turn of events.

Answer: D) Put off

Put off = postpone.

Q78. Identify the error in the following sentence. The fire fighters were well equipped with latest methods.

Answer: D) Latest

Should be 'with THE latest methods' — definite article missing before superlative 'latest'.

Q79. Identify the correctly spelt word from the options.

Answer: B) Conscientious

Correct spelling: Conscientious.

Q80. Which word means exactly the same as the one in bold: To go abroad was the most frivolous decision taken by her.

Answer: C) Silly

Frivolous = silly, trivial, lacking seriousness.

Q81. She is making tea. (Change into Passive Voice)

Answer: C) Tea is being made by her.

Present continuous active → present continuous passive: 'is being + V3'.

Q82. Here is the book that you asked _____.

Answer: D) for

Idiomatic: ask for something.

Q83. That is the _____ bracelet I have ever seen.

Answer: C) prettiest

'ever seen' triggers superlative → prettiest.

Q84. Prasad doesn't look well today, _____ ? (Use proper question tag)

Answer: A) does he ?

Negative statement → positive tag → does he?

Q85. Ammu _____ her exam last year.

Answer: D) passed

'Last year' = simple past → passed.

Q86. Pick the correct question tag: Please pass me the sugar, _____ ?

Answer: D) will you ?

Polite imperative request → 'will you?'

Q87. Choose the correct sentence from the following:

Answer: C) We need water and air to live.

Uncountable nouns used in general sense don't take 'the'.

Q88. Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct ?

Answer: B) We kept ourselves away from the class

Reflexive of 'we' = 'ourselves'.

Q89. Identify the simple sentence from the following:

Answer: B) The doctor admitted his helplessness

Simple sentence has one independent clause; B has no subordinate clause.

Q90. Which is the correct preposition to be used in the following sentence ? It is very rude to point _____ the people.

Answer: B) at

Idiom: point AT people/things.

Q91. മക്കത്തായം — പിരിച്ചെഴുതുക.

Answer: B) മക്കൾ + തായം

മക്കത്തായം = മക്കൾ + തായം (children's inheritance).

Q92. ചുവടെ കാണുന്ന പുല്ലിംഗ-സ്ത്രീലിംഗ ജോഡികളിൽ ശരിയായവ തെരഞ്ഞെടുത്തെഴുതുക. (i) കവി - കവയിത്രി (ii) വിദ്വാൻ - വിദ്വത്തി (iii) പ്രഭു - പ്രഭ്വി (iv) തരുണൻ - തരുണി

Answer: D) iii, iv ശരി

⚠️ Note on ambiguity: iii (പ്രഭു-പ്രഭ്വി) and iv (തരുണൻ-തരുണി) are correct. ii is wrong (proper feminine of വിദ്വാൻ is വിദുഷി, not വിദ്വത്തി). This question has ambiguity — none of the options matches the strict-grammar correct subset {i, iii, iv}. Standard Sanskrit grammar gives വിദുഷി as the feminine of വിദ്വാൻ, making (ii) wrong. (i) കവയിത്രി is universally accepted. PSC convention typically treats this paper's answer as D (treating i as Sanskrit-borrowed and not native Malayalam). If PSC's key is C, then (iv) തരുണി is being treated as a borrowing.

Q93. പേര് എന്ന പദത്തിന്റെ പര്യായമായി വരാത്തത് ഏത് ?

Answer: A) നാമാംഗം

നാമാംഗം is not a synonym for പേര്. The other three (അഭിധാനം, നാമധേയം, ആഖ്യ) all mean name/title.

Q94. ആമ്പൽ എന്ന പദത്തിന്റെ സമാനാർത്ഥമുള്ള ജോഡി തെരഞ്ഞെടുത്തെഴുതുക.

Answer: A) കൈരവം, കുവലയം

Both കൈരവം and കുവലയം mean ആമ്പൽ (water lily).

Q95. താഴെ പറയുന്ന ജോഡികളിൽ തെറ്റായവ തെരഞ്ഞെടുത്തെഴുതുക. (i) നെന്മണി - നെല് + മണി (ii) വിണ്ടലം - വിണ + തലം (iii) വിദ്യുച്ഛക്തി - വിദ്യുത് + ശക്തി (iv) വാഗ്ദാനം - വാഗ് + ദാനം

Answer: D) ii, iv തെറ്റ്

ii: വിണ്ടലം = വിണ്+തലം (chillu missing). iv: വാഗ്ദാനം = വാക്+ദാനം (the original is വാക്; വാഗ് is the assimilated form).

Q96. ചുവടെ കാണുന്ന ജോഡികളിൽ ശരിയായവ തെരഞ്ഞെടുത്തെഴുതുക. (i) ദൃഢപ്രതീക്ഷ - ദൃഢമായ പ്രതീക്ഷ (ii) കഥാരൂപം - കഥയുടെ രൂപം (iii) ദീപ്തഭാവം - ദീപ്തമാർന്ന ഭാവം (iv) ലളിതനൃത്തം - ലളിതയുടെ നൃത്തം

Answer: D) i, ii ശരി

i and ii correct. iv is wrong — ലളിതനൃത്തം = ലളിതമായ നൃത്തം (graceful dance) as karmadhāraya, not ലളിതയുടെ നൃത്തം.

Q97. He came to me and assured me to repay his debt within a week. ഏറ്റവും ഉചിതമായ തർജ്ജമ ഏത്?

Answer: B) അവൻ വന്ന് എന്നോട് ഒരാഴ്ച്ച്കുള്ളിൽ അവന്റെ കടം തിരിച്ചടച്ചാം എന്ന് എനിക്ക് ഉറപ്പു നൽകി.

B is the most accurate rendering — uses 'എന്നോട്' (to me) and 'ഉറപ്പു നൽകി' (assured).

Q98. വെള്ളികൊണ്ടുള്ള എന്ന് അർത്ഥം വരുന്ന ഉത്പ്പദം ഏത് ?

Answer: B) രാജതം

രാജതം (rājata, Sanskrit) = made of silver.

Q99. പതിവ്രത എന്നർത്ഥം വരുന്ന ശരിയായ രൂപമേത് ?

Answer: C) സാദ്ധ്വി

സാദ്ധ്വി (sādhvī) = chaste/devoted woman.

Q100. ഏറ്റവും ശരിയായ വാക്യം ഏത് ?

Answer: D) തോട്ടണ്ടി ഇറക്കുമതിനയത്തിൽ മാറ്റം വരുത്തി

D is cleanest — no redundancy, direct rendering of 'changes were made in the cashew import policy'.